21 RAJASTHAN JUDICIAL SERVICES

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ADDRESS: 90, Rishi Nagar, Sector 3, Hiran Magri, Opp. Makkhan Kitchens, Udaipur (Raj), 313001 WEBISTE: www.lawgica.in

CONTACT: +91 78776 84632

RAJASTHAN JUDICIAL SERVICES (2021)

CIVIL CADRE: SAMPLE PAPER

1. The Act of Civil Procedure Code

received the assent of the Governor General on

a. 21-3-1908 b. 21-1-1908 c. 21-3-1905 d. 21-1-1903

2. Under which Section of CPC, the

principles of equity, justice and good conscience are prescribed:

a. Section 151 b. Section 141 c. Section 121 d. Section 131

3. Which of the following is NOT correct

with reference to “Decree”? a. There must be formal expression of

an adjudication b. The adjudication must have been

given in a suit before the court c. The adjudication must have

determined the rights of the parties with regard to all or any of the matters in controversy in the suit

d. Such adjudication may not be conclusive or final

4. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a. The determination of any question within restitution proceedings under Section 144 shall also be a decree

b. An order determining any question within Section 47 CPC can no longer be treated as decree within the amended definition

c. An order dismissing the suit on account of failure of the Plaintiff to furnish better particulars as ordered, amounts to a decree

d. An interlocutory order in execution is always a decree

5. The following are some of the orders which do not amount to a decree:

i. An order refusing to stay ii. An order rejecting an application to

sue in forma pauperis iii. An order passed in execution

proceedings iv. Decision against the Plaintiff as to his

title

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

a. (i), (ii) and (iii) b. (ii), (iii) and (iv) c. (i), (iii) and (iv)

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d. (i), (ii) and (iv)

6. The doctrine of caveat emptor means: a. Friend of the court b. Let the purchaser beware c. Everybody should know d. Let the court know

7. Temporary and Permanent injunction

are regulated by: a. Sections 34 to 41 of the Contract Act,

1872 b. Sections 34 to 41 of the Specific Relief

Act, 1963 c. Sections 34 to 41 of the Civil

Procedure Code, 1908 d. Sections 34 to 41 of the Negotiable

Instruments Act, 1881

8. Where the property of third person is sold in execution of money decree, a suit by such person for declaration that the sale is not binding on him is

a. Barred by Section 47 b. Not barred by Section 47 c. Not maintainable under the law d. Frivolous and vexatious

9. Which of the following provisions of

the CPC deals with the suits in a “representative capacity”?

a. Order 1 Rule 8 b. Order 1 Rule 12 c. Order 1 Rule 9 d. Order 1 Rule 10

10. Multiplicity of proceedings are tried

to be barred by the provisions of: a. Section 11 b. Section 12 c. Section 15 d. Section 16

11. Under right to equality, prohibition or

discrimination on grounds of religion,

race, caste, sex or place of birth is the basis of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

a. Article 14 b. Article 16 c. Article 15 d. Article 15 (2)

12. A law may be unconstitutional on

which of the following grounds? a. Contravention of any fundamental

right, specified in Part III of the Constitution

b. Contravention of any of the mandatory provisions of the Constitution which impose limitations upon the powers of a legislature

c. Legislating on a subject which is not assigned to the relevant legislature by the distribution of powers made by the 7th schedule

d. All of them

13. Seniority is not a fundamental right but is merely a _______right.

a. Economic b. Civil c. Legal d. Both (b) and (c)

14. The protection of the Article 21

extends to which of the following? a. Citizens b. All persons c. Foreigners d. Persons under imprisonment

15. “Oath or affirmation by the President”

is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

a. Article 58 b. Article 59 c. Article 60 d. Article 61

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16. For binding contract both the parties to the contract must

a. Agree with each other b. Stipulate their individual offer and

consideration c. Agree upon the same thing in the

same sense d. Put the offer and counter offers

17. Consider the following statements

with regard to “uberrima fides” i) It falls within a class of cases, which

require utmost good faith ii) Every contract is a contract “uberrima

fides” iii) Contract of insurance is an example of

“uberrima fides” Of these statements is correct:

a. (i), (ii) and (iii) b. (i) and (iii) c. (ii) and (iii) d. (i) and (ii)

18. Which of the following is an ‘implied’

offer? a. A bid at an auction sale b. A banker’s catalogue of charges c. Consuming eatables at a restaurant d. All of the above

19. Which of the following statements is

not correct? a. Oral acceptance is a valid acceptance b. Acceptance must be in writing c. Acceptance must be communicated d. Acceptance must be in the prescribed

manner

20. Assertion (A): Acceptance is to offer what a lighted match is to a train of gunpowder Reason (R): Acceptance cannot be separated from other

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true

21. When did the Evidence Act come into

being? a. March 15, 1872 b. March 15, 1875 c. March 15, 1880 d. March 15, 1885

22. Which of the following section of the

Indian Evidence Act deals with consideration of proved confession affecting the person making it and others jointly under trail for same offence?



Indian Evidence Act deals with admission of execution by party to attested document?


24. Section 35 read with Section 74,

Indian Evidence Act pre-supposes: a. A document produced is really an

extract from the official register b. A document produced is partially an

extract from the official register c. A document produced is not always

an extract from the official register d. None of the above

25. Under Section 65, Indian Evidence

Act, which of the following needs to

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be proved concerning secondary evidence?

a. Existence of a document b. Condition of a document c. Contents of a document d. All of the above

26. Which of the following entry is a

prima facie evidence? a. Entries in the register of birth b. Entries in the register of death c. Entries in the register of marriage d. All of the above


Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to collections of laws and reports of decisions?


28. Section 132 of the Indian Evidence Act

does not apply to statement made by a person during an investigation under:

a. Section 159 Cr.P.C b. Section 161 Cr.P.C c. Section 163 Cr.P.C d. Section 166 Cr.P.C

29. The principle on which a dying

declaration is admitted in evidence is indicated in legal maxim:

a. Nemo moriturus proesumitur mentiri b. Lex fori c. Res judicata d. None of the above

30. Under Section 82, Indian Evidence Act

the Court must presume: a. That the seal or stamp or signature is

genuine

b. That the person signing the document held, at the time when he signed, the judicial or official character the claims

c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of them

31. Which of the following the deals with

bar of limitation in the Limitation Act, 1963?


32. Which of the following deals with the

exclusion in favour of reversioner of servient tenement in the Limitation Act, 1963?


33. Suit by a Surety against the Principal

Debtor, is discussed under which of the following article of the Limitation Act, 1963?

a. Article 42 b. Article 40 c. Article 34 d. Article 36

34. Transfer of a debt (which is transfer of

actionable claim) in the execution sale under the authority of court is also excluded and Section 135 of Transfer of Property Act, 1963 is

a. Inapplicable to such sales b. Applicable to such sales c. Partially applicable to such sales d. Prohibited to such sales

35. A child in mother’s womb or a child in

en ventro sa mere is a. Incompetent for any transfer

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b. Not governed under the TP Act c. A competent transferee d. A valid person to enter into any deal

36. Which of the following Section of the

T.P. Act provides that the interest created in favour of an unborn person becomes vested as soon as that person is born alive?


37. Formal legal document which creates

or confirms a right or record a fact is a:

a. Document b. Deed c. Statute d. Instrument

38. The meaning of a word is derived

from its associate words, i.e. the meaning of a word is to be judged by the company it keeps. This is stated by:________

a. Noscitur A Sociis b. Ejusdem Generis c. Expressio Unius Est Exclusio Alterius d. Contemporanea Expositio


summary procedure for trial for giving false evidence?



procedure where Court considers that case should not be dealt with under Section 345 Cr.P.C?

a. Section 339 Cr.P.C

b. Section 287 Cr.P.C c. Section 388 Cr.P.C d. Section 346 Cr.P.C

41. Which of the following Section deals

with victim compensation scheme? a. Section 280-B Cr.P.C b. Section 287-D Cr.P.C c. Section 357-A Cr.P.C d. Section 289-B Cr.P.C

42. Order to pay costs in non-cognizable

cases is covered under: a. Section 359 Cr.P.C b. Section 287 Cr.P.C c. Section 388 Cr.P.C d. Section 489 Cr.P.C

43. In which of the following case, a

search warrant can be issued? a. Where the Court has the reason to

believe that the person summoned to produce a document or thing will not produce it

b. Where the document or thing is not known to be in the possession of any person

c. Where a general inspection or search is necessary

d. All of the above

44. Under Section 107, Magistrate has the power to drop proceedings initiated:

a. Even after a formal order has been under Section 111 of Cr.P.C drawn up and before an inquiry under Section 116 of Cr.P.C

b. Even after a formal order has been under Section 111 Cr.P.C drawn up and before an inquiry under Section 118 Cr.P.C

c. Even after a formal order has been under Section 111 Cr.P.C drawn up and before an inquiry under Section 120 Cr.P.C

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d. Even after a formal order has been under Section 111 Cr.P.C drawn up and before an inquiry under Section 122 Cr.P.C

45. Which of the following deals with the summary dismissal of appeal?


46. To which of the following person

Section 109 Cr.P.C is applicable? a. To a person, who being or coming

within the local limits of the jurisdiction of a certain Magistrate, takes precautions to conceal his presence with a view to committing a cognizable offence

b. A person, whether he be of good or bad character who merely shows a disinclination for the society of the police and endeavours avoid them running away on their approach

c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above

47. In order to achieve the object of

Section 100 Cr.P.C, the law makes which of the following obligatory?

a. At least two independent and respectable witnesses of the locality should be present

b. The search should be made in their presence and the list of things seized in the search should be signed by them

c. The occupant of the place searched or his representative should be permitted to attend during the search and to have a copy of the list prepared

d. All of them

48. Which of the following is true about judgment?

a. It is a private document b. It is copyrighted c. It belongs to the State and its people d. Both (a) and (c)

49. If a Court by which an offender is

bound by a bond under section 5 of the Probation of Offenders Ordinance, 1960 has reason to believe that the offender has failed to observe any of the condition of his bond, it may issue

a. A warrant for his arrest b. Summon to the offender and his

sureties c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of above

50. Section 21 of the Protection of

Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 defines:

a. Protection Order b. Residential Order c. Custody Order d. Monetary Order

51. The ingredients of Section 149 of the

Indian Penal Code are- 1. Knowledge of the probability of the

commission of the offence 2. Common intention 3. Unlawful objects stated in Section 141

of the IPC 4. Active participation in commission of

crime

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

Codes: a. 1, 3 and 4 b. 2 and 4 c. 3 and 4 d. 1 and 3

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52. Assertion (A): Homicide is the killing

of a human being be a human being Reason (R): Homicide is always unlawful Codes: a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is

the correct explanation of (A) b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)

is not the correct explanation of (A)

c. (A) is true but (R) is false d. (A) is false but (R) is true

53. Which one of the following is NOT

correct with reference to the offence of theft?

a. Dishonest intention to take property b. Property must be movable c. Property must be taken without the

consent of the person in whose possession it is

d. Property must be taken without consent of the owner of the property

54. Which one is not an essential ingredient of a crime?

a. Motive b. Evil intent c. Human being d. Act

55. “Common intention” means: a. Similar intention b. Same intention c. Sharing of intention by all persons d. Common plans

56. What is the minimum imprisonment

prescribed for use of deadly weapons in 'dacoity'?

a. 10 years b. 7 years c. 5 years d. 14 years

57. Under which Section of the Indian

Penal Code, it is omission, and not an act, which is an offence?


58. Under IPC, which one of the following

Sections makes provision of “Solidarity Confinement”?


59. Which one of the following offences is

not compoundable under IPC? a. Section 323 b. Section 334 c. Section 448 d. Section 307

60. Which one of the following is an

incomplete crime? a. Public Nuisance b. Criminal Attempt c. Unlawful Assembly d. Riot

61. Specific Relief Act, 1963 is an Act: a. To consolidate and amend the law

relating to certain kinds of specific relief

b. To define and amend certain parts of law relating to contracts

c. To define and amend the law relating to certain kinds of specific relief

d. To define and amend the law relating to certain kinds of specific relief and contracts both

62. Specific Relief Act, 1963 is applicable to:

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a. Whole of India b. Whole of India except Jammu and

Kashmir c. Whole of India except North-eastern

states d. Both (b) and (c)

63. Specific Relief Act, 1963 came into

existence on which date: a. 1.1.1964 b. 1.2.1964 c. 1.3.1964 d. 10.3.1964

64. Time limit for disposal of petition filed

under Section 9 of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 is:

a. Within the period of 240 days from the date of service of notice on the tenant

b. Within the period of 12 months from the date of service of notice on the tenant

c. Within the period of 6 months from the date of service of notice on the tenant

d. No limitation

65. Which of the following is a correct statement as per Section 138 and 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

a. A cheque is to be presented to the bank within a period of 6 months from the date it is drawn or within the period of its validity, whichever is earlier

b. Notice within 30 days of receipt of information from the bank regarding return of cheque as unpaid, has to be served upon drawer, demanding payment of amount of money

c. On failure of drawer of such cheque to make payment within 15 days of receipt of such notice, the payee or

holder of cheque has to file complaint within 1 month thereof

d. All of the above

66. The delay in filing a complaint under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, can be condoned:

a. Under Section 5 of the Indian Limitation Act, 1963

b. Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

c. Under Section 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

d. Under Section 143 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

67. In the event of death of the person referred to in sub-clause (i) of Section 2 (1) of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, in case of premises let out for residential purposes, who of the following ordinarily residing with the tenant as member of his family upto his death, shall be included within the definition of tenant?

a. Surviving spouse, son, daughter, brother, sister, mother, father, grandfather and grandmother

b. Surviving spouse, son, daughter, brother, sister, mother, father

c. Surviving spouse, son, daughter, mother, father

d. Surviving spouse, son, daughter

68. “Premises” under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 does not include:

a. Out house appurtenant to a building b. Accommodation in a hostel c. Both (1) and (2) d. None of the above

69. Section 9 of the Juvenile Justice (Care

and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 defines:

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a. Procedure followed by the Juvenile Board

b. Powers of the Board c. Powers of Child Welfare Committee d. Procedure followed by a Magistrate

not empowered under this Act

70. Powers of the Children’s Court is stated under:


71. The Chairman is ill and we’ll have

to_____the meeting for a few days a. put on b. put of c. put away d. put off

72. The cat and the dog have

a_____enemy in the rat a. Same b. Common c. Mutual d. Similar

73. What is the synonym of CONTRITE a. Penitent b. Sore c. Angry d. Remorseless

74. What is the synonym of PENCHANT a. Art b. Inclination c. Strength d. Desire 75. What is the antonym of DESECRATE a. Defile b. Pollute c. Deify d. Impious

76. What is the antonym of LACONIC a. Copious b. Lingering c. Terse d. Brief

77. He is an interesting speaker but tends

to go off at a tangent a. Change the subject immediately b. Forget things in between c. Go on at great length d. Become boisterous

78. He sold his house for a song a. At a reasonable price b. At a discount c. Very cheaply d. At a premium

79. One indifferent to art and literature

is: a. Aromatic b. Critic c. Philistine d. Scholar

80. Open to injury or criticism a. Invincible b. Vulnerable c. Naive d. Sensitive

81. She said to him, “Why don’t you go

today?” a. She asked him why he did not go that

day b. She said to him why he done c. She asked him not to go that day d. She asked him why he did not go

today

82. In order to help the company attain its goal of enhancing profit, all the employees______

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a. Urged the management to grant paid leave

b. Appealed the management to implement new welfare schemes

c. Voluntarily offered to work overtime with lucrative compensation

d. Voluntarily offered to render additional services in lieu of nothing

e. Decided to enhance production at the cost of quality of the product

83. He tames animals because he_____ a. Is fond of them b. Hates them c. Is afraid of them d. Want to see them free e. Seldom loves them

84. He said, “The mice will play, when the

cat is away” a. He said that the mice will play when

the cat is away b. He said that the mice would play

when the cat is away c. He said that the mice would play

when the cat would be away d. He said that the mice shall play, when

the cat is away

85. He said, “I must go next week” a. He said that he must go next week b. He said that he must go the following week c. He said that he would have to go the following week d. He said that he was to go the following week

86.

a.

b.

c. (a) औ (b)

d.

87.

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91.

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92.

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d.

93. ?

a.

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b.

c.

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94.

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RAJASTHAN JUDICIAL SERVICES (2021) (CIVIL CADRE): SAMPLE PAPER

ANSWER KEY

1. A 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. B 15. C 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. A 23. D 24. A 25. D 26. D 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. B 32. A 33. A 34. A

35. C 36. A 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. D 41. C 42. A 43. D 44. A 45. D 46. A 47. D 48. C 49. C 50. C 51. D 52. C 53. D 54. A 55. C 56. B 57. A 58. C 59. D 60. B 61. D 62. B 63. A 64. B 65. C 66. A 67. A 68. C

69. C 70. B 71. A 72. D 73. A 74. A 75. C 76. B 77. A 78. A 79. D 80. A 81. A 82. A 83. B 84. B 85. A 86. D 87. A 88. A 89. B 90. A 91. A 92. A 93. B 94. B 95. A 96. D 97. A 98. A 99. B 100. A

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